Related%20passage for Bava Batra 101:11
שאני התם דלא ניחא ליה לשווייה נפשיה (משלי כב, ז) עבד לוה לאיש מלוה
was raised [from the following]: If a man borrows money from his slave and then emancipates him, or from his wife and then divorces her, they have no claim against him [for the money so lent].<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Even if he gave them a bond on his property. ');"><sup>21</sup></span> What is the reason for this? Is it not because we say that his object [in borrowing] was only to see if they had any money? These cases are different,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., in these cases it is legitimate to assume that he only wanted to see if they had any money, which he, as master or husband, was at liberty to appropriate. ');"><sup>22</sup></span>
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